Ringtone cutter full version with out any installation free download

CLICK HERE    TO NAVIGATE TO THE MAIN SITE ...

Go to above site and download the Ringtone cutter full version with out any installation ,you can  download freely with out any sign up and no additional installation 

Selenium Tool ~ QTP Training

Selenium Tool ~ QTP Training

Pictures about testing stratagies ...

Selenium Tutorial

1 .http://jroller.com/selenium/#tutorial

these are the follwing links to help in ETL testing

1.http://www.learndatamodeling.com/etl_testing.htm

Example of ETL Testing

For example, you're testing an ETL job/process/whatever with a minimal set of records (define that however you like)...and the 'real' ETL job/process/whatever is going to be expected to handle a significantly larger set of data, you may want to think about generating additional data to get to the size of what you will be seeing in your production environment.

Additionally, you may want to think about what the volume of data pre-existing in your production environment is going to be when you do the above-mentioned test (in your test environment.)

We're looking at two different overall tests above:
1. How long will it take to process a production size file?
2. A variation of 1. How long will it take to process a production size file with a production size database?

Part of the question that you will want to think about is how long does it take for the ETL job/process to complete. The source of this question is that you may be negatively impacting the user experience (that is, if you have some sort of user application that uses the data that you just loaded.) If you have an ETL job that runs for hours and gobbles up resources, that's not good.

ETL TESTING

ETL stands for extract, transform, and load. It can consolidate the scattered data for any
organization while working with different departments. It can very well handle the data
coming from different departments.

Problems in downloading Microsoft Script Debugger along with QTP installation

Problems in downloading Microsoft Script Debugger along with QTP installation:

Sometimes we will face a strange problem while installing QTP 9.5 / 10, Microsoft script debugger will fail during installation. In this case we are not able debug either actions or function libraries.
How to fix this issue.
1. You can run the Additional Installation Requirements utility at any time by choosing Start > Programs > QuickTest Professional > Tools > Additional Installation Requirements.
2. Install the same i.e. "scd10en.exe" from any internet site orhttp://www.microsoft.com/downloads/details.aspx?FamilyID=2f465be0-94fd-4569-b3c4-dffdf19ccd99&DisplayLang=en

what is the difference between QTP 10.0 and QTP 11.0

what is the difference between QTP 10.0 and QTP 11.0 ?

• QTP 11 new features:

• HP came up with the following new features in QTP 11.0

• In the following posts there is a detail explanation about all these new features:

• Manage Your Test Data

ISTQB QUESTION PAPERS FOR PRACTISING ..

ISTQB Foundation level exam Sample paper – I

ISTQB Foundation level exam Sample paper – I

Questions

SQL SERVER for tester...

DDL

Data Definition Language (DDL) statements are used to define the database structure or schema. Some examples:

• CREATE - to create objects in the database
• ALTER - alters the structure of the database
• DROP - delete objects from the database
• TRUNCATE - remove all records from a table, including all spaces allocated for the records are removed
• COMMENT - add comments to the data dictionary
• RENAME - rename an object

DML

Data Manipulation Language (DML) statements are used for managing data within schema objects. Some examples:

• SELECT - retrieve data from the a database
• INSERT - insert data into a table
• UPDATE - updates existing data within a table
• DELETE - deletes all records from a table, the space for the records remain
• MERGE - UPSERT operation (insert or update)
• CALL - call a PL/SQL or Java subprogram
• EXPLAIN PLAN - explain access path to data
• LOCK TABLE - control concurrency

DCL

Data Control Language (DCL) statements. Some examples:

• GRANT - gives user's access privileges to database
• REVOKE - withdraw access privileges given with the GRANT command

TCL

Transaction Control (TCL) statements are used to manage the changes made by DML statements. It allows statements to be grouped together into logical transactions.

• COMMIT - save work done
• SAVEPOINT - identify a point in a transaction to which you can later roll back
• ROLLBACK - restore database to original since the last COMMIT
• SET TRANSACTION - Change transaction options like isolation level and what rollback segment to use

DELETE

The DELETE command is used to remove rows from a table. A WHERE clause can be used to only remove some rows. If no WHERE condition is specified, all rows will be removed. After performing a DELETE operation you need to COMMIT or ROLLBACK the transaction to make the change permanent or to undo it. Note that this operation will cause all DELETE triggers on the table to fire.

TRUNCATE

TRUNCATE removes all rows from a table. The operation cannot be rolled back and no triggers will be fired. As such, TRUCATE is faster and doesn't use as much undo space as a DELETE.

DROP

The DROP command removes a table from the database. All the tables' rows, indexes and privileges will also be removed. No DML triggers will be fired. The operation cannot be rolled back.

 

CREATE DATABASE	CREATE  DATABASE  database_name
CREATE TABLE	CREATE TABLE table_name(column_name1 data_type,column_name2 data_type,Column_name3 data_type,....)
Select statement	SELECT * FROM table_name, SELECT column_name(s)  FROM table_ name
Distinct values	SELECT DISTINCT column name(s) FROM table name
Where clause	SELECT column_name(s) FROM table_nameWHERE column name operator value
AND & OR operator	SELECT * FROM Persons WHERE FirstName='Tove' ANDLastName='Svendson'	SELECT * FROM Persons WHEREFirstName='Tove' OR FirstName='Ola'			SELECT * FROM Persons WHERELastName='Svendson' AND (FirstName='Tove' OR FirstName='Ola')
ORDER BY	SELECT column_name(s) FROM table_name ORDER BY column_name(s) ASC|DESC
INSERT INTO	INSERT INTO table_name VALUES (value1, value2, value3,...)
UPDATE	UPDATE table_name SET column1=value WHERE some_column=some_value
DELETE //(Rows only deleted)	DELETE * FROM table_name, DELETE FROM table_name WHERE some_column=some_value
TOP CLAUSE	SELECT TOP number | percent column_name(s) FROM table_name // (top rows returned)
LIKE	SELECT column_name(s) FROM table_name WHERE column_name LIKE pattern (// %,_[CHAR LIST], [^CHARLIST],OR [!CHAR LIST])
IN (to specify multiple Val’s)	SELECT column_name(s) FROM table_name WHERE column_name IN (value1,value2,...)
BETWEEN(Range b/w two Val’s)	SELECT column_name(s) FROM table_name WHERE column_name BETWEEN value1 AND value2
Alias for tables	SELECT column_name(s) FROM table_name AS alias_name
Alias for columns	SELECT column_name AS alias_name FROM table_name Ex: SELECT po.OrderID, p.LastName, p.FirstName  FROM Persons AS p, Product_Orders AS po  WHERE p.LastName='Hansen' AND p.FirstName='Ola' ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Ex: with out aliases above ex: SELECT Product_Orders.OrderID, Persons.LastName, Persons.FirstName FROM Persons,Product_OrdersWHERE Persons.LastName='Hansen' AND Persons.FirstName='Ola'
JOINS 1.INNER JOIN	SELECT column_name(s) FROM table_name1  INNER JOIN table_name 2 ON table_name1.column_name =table_name2.column_name		SELECT Persons.LastName, Persons.FirstName, Orders.OrderNo FROM Persons INNER JOIN Orders ON Persons.P_Id=Orders.P_Id ORDER BY Persons.LastName
2.LEFT (OR) LEFT OUTER JOIN	SELECT column_name(s)FROM table_name1 LEFT JOIN table_name2 ONtable_name1.column_name =table_name2.column_name		SELECT Persons.LastName, Persons.FirstName, Orders.OrderNo FROM Persons LEFT JOIN  Orders  ON Persons.P_Id=Orders.P_Id ORDER BY Persons.LastName
3.RIGHT (OR) RIGHT OUTER JOIN	SELECT column_name(s) FROM table_name1 RIGHT JOIN table_name2 ON table_name1.column_name= table_name2.column_name		SELECT Persons.LastName, Persons.FirstName, Orders.OrderNo FROM Persons RIGHT JOIN Orders ON Persons.P_Id=Orders.P_Id ORDER BY Persons.LastName
4.FULL JOIN	SELECT column_name(s) FROM table_name1 FULL JOIN table_name2  ON table_name1.column_name=table_name2.column_name
FULL JOIN  Ex:	SELECT Persons.LastName, Persons.FirstName, Orders.OrderNo FROM Persons FULL JOIN Orders ON Persons.P_Id=Orders.P_Id ORDER BY Persons.LastName
UNION & UNION ALL	SELECT column_name(s) FROtable_name1     UNION / UNION ALL SELECT column_name(s) FROM table_name2			(union--returns only distinct values) (union all--returns duplicate values also)
SELECT INTO	SELECT * / column name INTO new_table_name [IN externaldatabase]FROM old_tablename        //(to create back up of table or columns)
CONSTRAINTS 1.NOT NULL	CREATE TABLE Persons (P_Id int NOT NULL UNIQUE, LastName varchar(255) NOT NULL, FirstName varchar(255),Address varchar(255),City varchar(255))
2.UNIQUE 3. DROP UNIQUE CONSTRAINT	1.CREATE TABLE Persons (P_Id int NOT NULL UNIQUE, LastName varchar(255) NOT NULL, FirstName varchar(255),Address varchar(255),City varchar(255)) 2.For already existing table  ALTER TABLE Persons ADD UNIQUE (P_Id) 3.for multiple cols’ ALTER TABLE PersonsADD CONSTRAINT uc_PersonID UNIQUE (P_Id,LastName) ALTER TABLE Persons DROP CONSTRAINT uc_PersonID
4.PRIMARY KEY	CREATE TABLE Persons (P_Id int NOT NULL, LastName varchar(255)  NOT NULL, FirstName varchar(255),Address varchar(255),City varchar(255), CONSTRAINT  pk_PersonID PRIMARY KEY (P_Id,LastName)) For Existed table: ALTER TABLE Persons ADD PRIMARY KEY (P_Id)  For multiple PK’s:  ALTER TABLE Persons ADD CONSTRAINT pk_PersonID PRIMARY KEY (P_Id,LastName) To drop PK:  ALTER TABLE Persons DROP CONSTRAINT pk_PersonID
5.FOREIGN KEY	CREATE TABLE Orders (O_Id int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,OrderNo int NOT NULL,P_Id int FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES Persons(P_Id)) For Existed table: ALTER TABLE Orders ADD FOREIGN KEY (P_Id)REFERENCES Persons(P_Id) To drop FK :ALTER TABLE Orders DROP CONSTRAINT fk_PerOrders
6.CHECK CONSTRAINT	CREATE TABLE Persons(P_Id int NOT NULL CHECK (P_Id>0),LastNamevarchar(255) NOT NULL,FirstName varchar(255),Address varchar(255),City varchar(255)) //(To check the cond’n) For Existed table: ALTER TABLE Persons ADD CHECK (P_Id>0) For multiple columns : ALTER TABLE Persons ADD CONSTRAINT chk_Person CHECK (P_Id>0 AND City='Sandnes') ALTER TABLE Persons To drop CHECK : DROP CONSTRAINT chk_Person
7.DEFAULT	CREATE TABLE Orders( Order­­_Date date DEFAULT GETDATE()) For Existed table:  ALTER TABLE Persons ALTER COLUMN City SET DEFAULT 'SANDNES' drop DEFAULT:ALTER TABLE Persons ALTER COLUMN City DROP DEFAULT
CREATE INDEX UNIQUEINDEXà DROP INDEXà	CREATE INDEX index_name ON table_name (column_name) CREATE UNIQUE INDEX index_name ON table_name (column_name) DROP INDEX table_name.index_name
DROP	DROP TABLE table_name DROP DATABASE database_name
TRUNCATE	TRUNCATE TABLE table_name
ALTER TABLE ALTER COLUMN	ALTER TABLE table_name  ADD column_name datatype ALTER TABLE table_name ATER COLUMN column_name datatype
IDENTITY	CREATE TABLE Persons (P_Id int PRIMARY KEY IDENTITY,LastName  varchar(255) NOT NULL,FirstName varchar(255),Address varchar(255),City varchar(255))
CREATE VIEW UPDATING VIEW DROP VIEWà	CREATE VIEW view_name AS SELECT column_name(s)FROM table_name   WHERE condition CREATE OR REPLACE VIEW view_name AS SELECT column_name(s)  FROM table_name WHERE condition DROP VIEW view_name
DATE FUNC’S: GETDATE() DATEPART() DATEADD() DATEDIFF() CONVERT()	·  DATE - format YYYY-MM-DD ·  DATETIME - format: YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS Returns the current date and time Returns a single part of a date/time Adds or subtracts a specified time interval from a date Returns the time between two dates Displays date/time data in different formats
SELECTING NULL /NOT NULL COLUMNS	SELECT LastName,FirstName,Address FROM Persons WHERE Address IS NULL/NOT NULL
IS NULL	NULL is treated as specific value for the calculation purpose
Functions	SELECT AVG(column_name) FROM table_name SELECT COUNT(column_name) FROM table_name SELECT FIRST(column_name) FROM table_name SELECT LAST(column_name) FROM table_name SELECT MAX(column_name) FROM table_name SELECT MIN(column_name) FROM table_name SELECT SUM(column_name) FROM table_name SELECT LEN(column_name) FROM table_name SELECT ROUND(column_name,decimals) FROM table_name
GROUP BY MORE THAN ONE COL’N	SELECT column_name, aggregate_function(column_name) FROM table_name WHERE column_name operator value GROUP BY column_name SELECT Customer,OrderDate,SUM(OrderPrice) FROM Orders GROUP BY Customer,OrderDate
HAVING	Instead of Where clause ,for aggregative functions
UPPER case	SELECT UPPER(column_name) FROM table_name
LOWER case	SELECT LOWER(column_name) FROM table_name
MID VALUE	SELECT MID(column_name,start [,length]) FROM table_name

 

SQL SERVER – 2008 – Introduction to Merge Statement – One Statement for INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE

August 28, 2008 by pinaldave

MERGE is a new feature that provides an efficient way to perform multiple DML operations. In previous versions of SQL Server, we had to write separate statements to INSERT, UPDATE, or DELETE data based on certain conditions, but now, using MERGE statement we can include the logic of such data modifications in one statement that even checks when the data is matched then just update it and when unmatched then insert it.

One of the most important advantage of MERGE statement is all the data is read and processed only once. In previous versions three different statement has to be written to process three different activity (INSERT, UPDATE or DELETE), however using MERGE statement all update activity can be done in one pass of database table. This is quite an improvement in performance of database query.

Syntax of MERGE statement is as following:
MERGE
[ TOP ( expression ) [ PERCENT ] ]
[ INTO ] target_table [ WITH ( <merge_hint> ) ] [ [ AS ] table_alias]
USING <table_source>
ON <merge_search_condition>
[ WHEN MATCHED [ AND <clause_search_condition> ]
THEN <merge_matched> ]
[ WHEN NOT MATCHED [ BY TARGET ] [ AND <clause_search_condition> ]
THEN <merge_not_matched> ]
[ WHEN NOT MATCHED BY SOURCE [ AND <clause_search_condition> ]
THEN <merge_matched> ]
[ <output_clause> ]
[ OPTION ( <query_hint> [ ,...n ] ) ]
;
Example:

Let’s create Student Details and StudentTotalMarks and inserted some records.

Student Details:

USE AdventureWorks
GO
CREATE TABLE StudentDetails
(
StudentID INTEGER PRIMARY KEY,
StudentName VARCHAR(15)
)
GO
INSERT INTO StudentDetails
VALUES(1,'SMITH')
INSERT INTO StudentDetails
VALUES(2,'ALLEN')
INSERT INTO StudentDetails
VALUES(3,'JONES')
INSERT INTO StudentDetails
VALUES(4,'MARTIN')
INSERT INTO StudentDetails
VALUES(5,'JAMES')
GO

StudentTotalMarks:

CREATE TABLE StudentTotalMarks
(
StudentID INTEGER REFERENCES StudentDetails,
StudentMarks INTEGER
)
GO
INSERT INTO StudentTotalMarks
VALUES(1,230)
INSERT INTO StudentTotalMarks
VALUES(2,255)
INSERT INTO StudentTotalMarks
VALUES(3,200)
GO

In our example we will consider three main conditions while we merge this two tables.

1. Delete the records whose marks are more than 250.
2. Update marks and add 25 to each as internals if records exist.
3. Insert the records if record does not exists.

Now we will write MERGE process for tables created earlier. We will make sure that we will have our three conditions discussed above are satisfied.

MERGE StudentTotalMarks AS stm
USING (SELECT StudentID,StudentName FROM StudentDetails) AS sd
ON stm.StudentID = sd.StudentID
WHEN MATCHED AND stm.StudentMarks > 250 THEN DELETE
WHEN MATCHED THEN UPDATE SET stm.StudentMarks = stm.StudentMarks + 25
WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN
INSERT(StudentID,StudentMarks)
VALUES(sd.StudentID,25);
GO

There are two very important points to remember while using MERGE statement.

• Semicolon is mandatory after the merge statement.

When there is a MATCH clause used along with some condition, it has to be specified first amongst all other WHEN MATCH clause.

There are two very important points to remember while using MERGE statement.

• Semicolon is mandatory after the merge statement.
• When there is a MATCH clause used along with some condition, it has to be specified first amongst all other WHEN MATCH clause.

After the MERGE statement has been executed, we should compare previous resultset and new resultset to verify if our three conditions are carried out.

Second example

MERGE SQL statement - Part 1

--Create a target table

CREATE TABLE Products

(

ProductID INT PRIMARY KEY,

ProductName VARCHAR (100),

Rate MONEY

) 

GO

--Insert records into target table

INSERT INTO Products

VALUES

(1, 'Tea', 10.00),

(2, 'Coffee', 20.00),

(3, 'Muffin', 30.00),

(4, 'Biscuit', 40.00)

GO

--Create source table

CREATE TABLE UpdatedProducts

(

ProductID INT PRIMARY KEY,

ProductName VARCHAR(100),

Rate MONEY

) 

GO

--Insert records into source table

INSERT INTO UpdatedProducts

VALUES

(1, 'Tea', 10.00),

(2, 'Coffee', 25.00),

(3, 'Muffin', 35.00),

(5, 'Pizza', 60.00)

GO

SELECT * FROM Products

SELECT * FROM UpdatedProducts

GO

MERGE SQL statement - Part 2

--Synchronize the target table with

--refreshed data from source table

MERGE Products AS TARGET

USING UpdatedProducts AS SOURCE 

ON (TARGET.ProductID = SOURCE.ProductID) 

--When records are matched, update 

--the records if there is any change

WHEN MATCHED AND TARGET.ProductName <> SOURCE.ProductName 

OR TARGET.Rate <> SOURCE.Rate THEN 

UPDATE SET TARGET.ProductName = SOURCE.ProductName, 

TARGET.Rate = SOURCE.Rate 

--When no records are matched, insert

--the incoming records from source

--table to target table

WHEN NOT MATCHED BY TARGET THEN 

INSERT (ProductID, ProductName, Rate) 

VALUES (SOURCE.ProductID, SOURCE.ProductName, SOURCE.Rate)

--When there is a row that exists in target table and

--same record does not exist in source table

--then delete this record from target table

WHEN NOT MATCHED BY SOURCE THEN 

DELETE

--$action specifies a column of type nvarchar(10) 

--in the OUTPUT clause that returns one of three 

--values for each row: 'INSERT', 'UPDATE', or 'DELETE', 

--according to the action that was performed on that row

OUTPUT $action, 

DELETED.ProductID AS TargetProductID, 

DELETED.ProductName AS TargetProductName, 

DELETED.Rate AS TargetRate, 

INSERTED.ProductID AS SourceProductID, 

INSERTED.ProductName AS SourceProductName, 

INSERTED.Rate AS SourceRate; 

SELECT @@ROWCOUNT;

GO

Notes

• The MERGE SQL statement requires a semicolon (;) as a statement terminator. Otherwise Error 10713 is raised when a MERGE statement is executed without the statement terminator.
• When used after MERGE, @@ROWCOUNT returns the total number of rows inserted, updated, and deleted to the client.
• At least one of the three MATCHED clauses must be specified when using MERGE statement; the MATCHED clauses can be specified in any order. However a variable cannot be updated more than once in the same MATCHED clause.
• Of course it’s obvious, but just to mention, the person executing the MERGE statement should have SELECT Permission on the SOURCE Table and INSERT, UPDATE and DELETE Permission on the TARGET Table.
• MERGE SQL statement improves the performance as all the data is read and processed only once whereas in previous versions three different statements have to be written to process three different activities (INSERT, UPDATE or DELETE) in which case the data in both the source and target tables are evaluated and processed multiple times; at least once for each statement.
• MERGE SQL statement takes same kind of locks minus one Intent Shared (IS) Lock that was due to the select statement in the ‘IF EXISTS’ as we did in previous version of SQL Server.
• For every insert, update, or delete action specified in the MERGE statement, SQL Server fires any corresponding AFTER triggers defined on the target table, but does not guarantee on which action to fire triggers first or last. Triggers defined for the same action honor the order you specify.

QTP script simple examples here....

## open gmail and check inbox if any new mail by linear fraemwork

Dim iTodayMails

iTodayMails = 0

'Open GMail

SystemUtil.Run "iexplore.exe", "http://www.gmail.com"

'Page Sync

Browser("Gmail").Page("Gmail").Sync

'Login to Gmail

Browser("Gmail").Page("Gmail").WebEdit("UserName").Set "valid gmail login id"

Browser("Gmail").Page("Gmail").WebEdit("Password").Set "valid gmail password"

Browser("Gmail").Page("Gmail").WebButton("SignIn").Click

DB TESTING

	Database Testing: How to Regression Test a Relational Database www.agiledata.org: Techniques for Successful Evolutionary/Agile Database Development
Home  |  Agile DBAs  |  Developers  |  Enterprise Architects  |  Enterprise Administrators  |  Best Practices  |  Agility@Scale Blog  |  Contact Me

Relational database management systems (RDBMSs) often persist mission-critical data which is updated by many applications and potentially thousands if not millions of end users.  Furthermore, they implement important functionality in the form of database methods (stored procedures, stored functions, and/or triggers) and database objects (e.g. Java or C# instances).  The best way to ensure the continuing quality of these assets, at least from a technical point of view, you should have a full regression test suite which you can run on a regular basis.  In this article I argue for a fully automated, continuous regression testing based approach to database testing.  Just as agile software developers take this approach to their application code, see Agile Testing and Quality Strategies, we should also do the same for our databases.

QTP class notes

AUTOMATION TESTING

MANUAL TESTING

Testing an application with human interaction is called Manual Testing.

Drawbacks of Manual Testing

(i)                Time consuming.

(ii)              More resources required.

(iii)           Human Errors

(iv)           Repetition of the Task is not much

(v)              Tiredness

(vi)           Simultaneous auctions are not possible (Parallel) 

security testing

Introduction
Business Case
Black Box, White Box, and Gray Box Testing
Types of Test Tools
Technologies for Black Box Security Testing
Evaluation Criteria
Use Throughout the Software Development Life Cycle
Case Study
Glossary

ISTQB PREVIOUS QUESTIONS

ISTQB ‘Foundation level’ sample questions with answers and detailed evaluation of each option:
1. Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:-
a) Breadth Test and Depth Test
b) Retesting
c) Confirmation Testing
d) Sanity Testing
Evaluating the options:
a) Option a: Breadth testing is a test suite that exercises the full functionality of a product but does not test features in detail. Depth testing is a test that exercises a feature of a product in full detail.
b) Option b: Retesting is part of regression
c) Option c: Confirmation testing is a synonym for retesting
d) Option d: Sanity testing does not include full functionality
Maintenance testing includes testing some features in detail (for e.g. environment) and for some features detail testing is not required. It’s a mix of both breadth and depth testing.
So, the answer is ‘A’
2. Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-
i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main Objective is to find defects
a) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false
Evaluating the options:
Consider the first point (i). This is true, Inspection is led by trained moderator. Hence we can eliminate options (a) and (d). Now consider second point. In Inspection pre-meeting preparation is required. So this point is false. Look for option where (i) is true and (ii) is false.
The answer is ‘B’
3. The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the correct order.

i. Planning
ii. Review Meeting
iii. Rework
iv. Individual Preparations
v. Kick Off
vi. Follow Up
a) i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi
b) vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v
c) i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
d) i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi
Evaluating the options:
Formal review process is ’Inspection’. Planning is foremost step. Hence we can eliminate option ’b’. Now we need to kickoff the process, so the second step will be Kick off. That’s it we found the answer. Its ’C’
The answer is ’C’
4. Consider the following state transition diagram of a two-speed hair dryer, which is operated by pressing its one button. The first press of the button turns it on to Speed 1, second press to Speed 2 and the third press turns it off.

Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage?
a. A,C,B
b. B,C,A
c. A,B,C
d. C,B,A
Evaluating the options:
In State transition testing a test is defined for each state transition. The coverage that is achieved by this testing is called 0-switch or branch coverage. 0-switch coverage is to execute each loop once (No repetition. We should start with initial state and go till end state. It does not test ‘sequence of two state transitions’). In this case the start state is ‘OFF’, and then press of the button turns it on to Speed 1 (i.e. A). Second press turns it on to Speed 2 (i.e. B) and the third press turns it off (i.e. C). Here we do not test the combinations like what if the start state is ‘Speed 1’ or ‘Speed 2’ etc.
An alternate way of solving this is check for the options where it starts with ‘OFF’ state. So we have options ‘a’ and ‘c’ to select from. As per the state diagram from ‘OFF’ state the dryer goes to ‘Speed 1’ and then to ‘Speed 2’. So our answer should start with ‘A’ and end with ‘C’.
The answer is ’C’
5. White Box Techniques are also called as :-
a) Structural Testing
b) Design Based Testing
c) Error Guessing Technique
d) Experience Based Technique
Evaluating the options:
I guess no evaluation is required here. It’s a straight answer. White box techniques are also called as Structural testing. (as it is done using code)
The answer is ‘A’
6. What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?
a) A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
b) An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case
c) An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case
d) An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test case.
Evaluating the options:
Let’s recall the definition of equivalence partition. It is grouping inputs into valid and invalid classes. Hence any one value from one particular class forms an input. For e.g. input a valid class contains values from 3-5, then any value between 3-5 is considered as an input. All values are supposed to yield same output. Hence one value in this range becomes a test case.
The answer is ‘B’
7. The Test Cases Derived from use cases
a) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
b) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system
c) Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
d) Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level
Evaluating the options:
Please refer to Use case related topic in the foundation level guide “Use cases describe the “process flows” through a system based on its actual likely use” (actual likely use is nothing but the real world use of the system). Use cases are useful for uncovering defects. Hence we can eliminate options (c ) and (d). Use case uncovers defects in process flow during real world use of the system.
The answer is ‘A’
8. Exhaustive Testing is
a) Is impractical but possible
b) Is practically possible
c) Is impractical and impossible
d) Is always possible
Evaluating the options:
From the definition given in the syllabus, Exhaustive testing is impossible. But it is possible in trivial cases. Exhaustive testing is not always possible. So eliminate option ‘d’. It is not impossible also. So eliminate option ‘c’. But implementing is impractical. Hence we can conclude that exhaustive testing is impractical but possible
The answer is ‘A’
9. Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase
a) Creating test suites from the test cases
b) Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
c) Comparing actual results
d) Designing the Tests
Evaluating the options:
Please take care of the word ‘not’ in the question. Test implementation does include Creating test suites, executing and comparing results. Hence eliminate options a, b and c. The only option left is ‘D’. Designing activities come before implementation.
The answer is ‘D’
10. Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique?
a) Statement Testing and coverage
b) Decision Testing and coverage
c) Condition Coverage
d) Boundary value analysis
Evaluating the options:
Please take care of the word ‘not’ in the question. We have to choose the one which is not a part of white box technique. Statement, decision, condition are the terms used in white box. So eliminate options a, b and c. Boundary value is part of black box.
The answer is ‘D’
11. A Project risk includes which of the following
a) Organizational Factors
b) Poor Software characteristics
c) Error Prone software delivered.
d) Software that does not perform its intended functions
Evaluating the options:
a) Option a: Organizational factors can be part of project risk.
b) Option b: Poor software characteristics are part of software. Its not a risk
c) Option c: Error prone software delivered. Again it’s a part of software.
d) Option d: Software that does not perform its intended functions. Again it’s a part of software.
The answer is ‘A’
12. In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :
i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i is false
Evaluating the options:
a) Option a: Risks identified can be used to determine the test technique.
b) Option b: Risks can be used to determine the extent of testing required. For e.g. if there are P1 bugs in a software, then it is a risk to release it. Hence we can increase the testing cycle to reduce the risk
c) Option c: If risk areas are identified before hand, then we can prioritize testing to find defects asap.
d) Option d: Risk does not determine the cost of the project. It determines the impact on the project as a whole.
Check for the option where first 3 points are true. Its ‘B’
The answer is ‘B’
13. Which of the following is the task of a Tester?
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
Evaluating the options:
Not much explanation is needed in this case. As a tester, we do all the activities mentioned in options (ii), (iii) and (iv).
The answer is ‘B’
14. The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :-
a) Explaining the objectives
b) Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations
Evaluating the options:
In this case, elimination will work best. Follow-up is not a planning activity. It’s a post task. Hence eliminate option ‘b’. Individual meeting preparation is an activity for individual. It’s not a planning activity. Hence eliminate option ‘d’. Now we are left with 2 options ‘a’ and ‘b’, read those 2-3 times. We can identify that option ‘b’ is most appropriate. Planning phase of formal review does include selecting personnel and allocation of roles. Explaining the objectives is not part of review process. (this is also written in the FL syllabus)
The answer is ‘B’
15. A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a formal review.
a) Moderator.
b) Scribe
c) Author
d) Manager
Evaluating the options:
I hope there is not confusion here. The answer is scribe.
The answer is ‘B’
16. Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :-
i. Manager
ii. Moderator
iii. Scribe / Recorder
iv. Assistant Manager
a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.
Evaluating the options:
The question is regarding formal review, means Inspection. First we will try to identify the persons that we are familiar w.r.t Inspection. Manager, Moderator and Scribe are involved in Inspection. So now we have only first 2 options to select from. (other 2 options are eliminated). There is no assistant manager in Inspection.
The answer is ‘B’
17. Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through
a) Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group
b) Pre Meeting Preparations
c) Formal Follow Up Process
d) Includes Metrics
Evaluating the options:
Pre meeting preparation is part of Inspection. Also Walk through is not a formal process. Metrics are part of Inspection. Hence eliminating ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.
The answer is ‘A’
18. What can static analysis NOT find?
a) the use of a variable before it has been defined
b) unreachable (“dead”) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations
Evaluating the options:
Static analysis cover all the above options except ‘Memory leaks’. (Please refer to the FL syllabus. Its written clearly over there)
The answer is ‘C’
19. Incidents would not be raised against:
a) requirements
b) documentation
c) test cases
d) improvements suggested by users
Evaluating the options:
The first three options are obvious options for which incidents are raised. The last option can be thought as an enhancement. It is a suggestion from the users and not an incident.
The answer is ‘D’
20. A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to detection of threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders.
a) Security Testing
b) Recovery Testing
c) Performance Testing
d) Functionality Testing
Evaluating the options:
The terms used in the question like detection of threats, virus etc point towards the security issues. Also security testing is a part of Functional testing. In security testing we investigate the threats from malicious outsiders etc.
The answer is ‘A’
21. Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
a) Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
b) Logging the outcome of test execution.
c) Assessing if more tests are needed.
d) Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.
Evaluating the options:
The question is about ‘not’ a major task. Option ‘a’ is a major task. So eliminate this. Option ‘b’ is not a major task. (But yes, logging of outcome is important). Option ‘c’ and ‘d’ both are major tasks of Exit criteria. So eliminate these two.
The answer is ‘B’
22. Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the test to continue to function properly under these different workloads.
a) Load Testing
b) Integration Testing
c) System Testing
d) Usability Testing
Evaluating the options:
Workloads, performance are terms that come under Load testing. Also as can be seen from the other options, they are not related to load testing. So we can eliminate them.
The answer is ‘A’
23. Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components is :-
a) System Level Testing
b) Integration Level Testing
c) Unit Level Testing
d) Component Testing
Evaluating the options:
We have to identify the testing activity which finds defects which occur due to interaction or integration. Option ‘a’ is not related to integration. Option ‘c’ is unit testing. Option ‘d’ component is again a synonym for unit testing. Hence eliminating these three options.
The answer is ‘B’
24. Static analysis is best described as:
a) The analysis of batch programs.
b) The reviewing of test plans.
c) The analysis of program code.
d) The use of black box testing.
Evaluating the options:
In this case we have to choose an option, which ‘best’ describes static analysis. Most of the options given here are very close to each other. We have to carefully read them.
a) Option a: Analysis is part of static analysis. But is not the best option which describes static analysis.
b) Option b: Reviews are part of static analysis. But is not the best option which describes static analysis.
c) Option c: Static analysis does analyze program code.
d) Option d: This option ca be ruled out, as black box is a dynamic testing.
The answer is ‘C’
25. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class
a) BOOK
b) Book
c) Boo01k
d) book
Evaluating the options:
As we know, alpha numeric is combination of alphabets and numbers. Hence we have to choose an option which has both of these.
a. Option a: contains only alphabets. (to create confusion they are given in capitals)
b. Option b: contains only alphabets. (the only difference from above option is that all letters are not in capitals)
c. Option c: contains both alphabets and numbers
d. Option d: contains only alphabets but in lower case
The answer is ‘C’
26. Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Evaluating the options:
Test basis comprise of requirements, architecture, design, interfaces. By looking at these words, we can straight away eliminate last two options. Now option ‘a’ is about test analysis and design. This comes under test basis. Option ‘b’ is about implementation and execution which come after the design process. So the best option is ‘a’.
The answer is ‘A’
27. Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Evaluating the options:
Incident is reporting discrepancies, in other terms its defect/bug. We find defects while execution cycle where we execute the test cases.

The answer is ‘B’
28. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
a) operating systems
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement document
Evaluating the options:
We have to choose an option which does ‘not’ come under Configuration Management (CM). CM is about maintaining the integrity of the products like components, data and documentation.
a) Option a: maintaining the Operating system configuration that has been used in the test cycle is part of CM.
b) Option b: Test documentation is part of CM
c) Option c: Data is part of CM. but here the option is ‘live data’ which is not part of CM. The live data keeps on changing (in real scenario).
d) Option d: Requirements and documents are again part of CM
The only option that does not fall under CM is ‘c’
The answer is ‘C’
29. Handover of Test-ware is a part of which Phase
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Evaluating the options:
Hand over is typically a process which is part of closure activities. It is not part of analysis, design or planning activity. Also it is not part of evaluating exit criteria. After closure of test cycle test-ware is handover to the maintenance organization.
The answer is ‘C’
30. The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalence values which belong to the same class.
a) 12,16,22
b) 24,27,17
c) 22,23,24
d) 14,15,19
Evaluating the options:
Read the question carefully. We have to choose values from same class. So first divide the classes. When temperature falls below 18 switch is turned off. This forms a class (as shown below). When the temperature is more than 21, the switch is turned on. For values between 18 to 21, no action is taken. This also forms a class as shown below.
Class I: less than 18 (switch turned off)
Class II: 18 to 21
Class III: above 21 (switch turned on)
From the given options select the option which has values from only one particular class. Option ‘a’ values are not in one class, so eliminate. Option ‘b’ values are not in one class, so eliminate. Option ‘c’ values are in one class. Option ‘d’ values are not in one class, so eliminate. (please note that the question does not talk about valid or invalid classes. It is only about values in same class)
The answer is ‘C’
About the Author:
“N. Sandhya Rani” is having around 4 years of experience in software testing mostly in manual testing. She is helping many aspirant software testers to clear the ISTQB testing certification exam by giving tips on how to solve the multiple choice questions correctly with evaluating each option quickly.
If you have any query on ISTQB testing certification exam, please post it in comment section below.